Rajasthan Judicial Services Competitive Exam 2011 (Preliminary) on 21 December 2011
The Rajasthan Public Service Commission held Rajasthan Judicial Services Competitive Exam 2011 (Preliminary) on 21 December 2011. The following is the question paper of RJS Prelims 2011.
Time : 2.00 Hours Maximum Marks : 120
1.Answer all questions.
2.All questions carry equal marks.
3.Only one answer is to be given for each question.
4.If more than one answers are marked, it would be trated as wrong answer.
5.Each question has four alternative responses marked serially as 1, 2, 3, 4 You have to darken only one circle or bubble indicating the correct answer on the Answer Sheet using BLUE BALL POINT PEN.
6.1/3 part of the mark(s) of each question will be deducted for each wrong answer. (A wrong answer means an incorrect answer or more than one answers for any question. Leaving all the relevant circles or bubbles of any question blank will not be considered as wrong answer).
7.The candidate should ensure that Series Code of the Question Paper Booklet and Answer Sheet must be same after opening the envelopes. In case they are different, a candidate must obtain another question paper of the same series. Candidate himself shall be responsible for ensuring this.
8.Mobile Phone or any other electronics gadget in the examination hall is strictly prohibited. A candidate found with any of such objectionable material with him/her will be strictly dealt as per rules.
9.Please correctly fill your Roll Number in O.M.R Sheet. 5 marks will be deducted for filling wrong or incomplete Roll Number.
10.If there is any sort of ambiguity/mistake either of printing or factual nature then out of Hindi and English Version will be treated as standard.
Warning :If a candidate is found copying or if any unauthorised material is found in his/her possession. F.I.R would be lodged against him/her in the Police Station and he/she would liable to be prosecuted under Section 3 of the R.P.E. (Prevention of Unfairmeans) Act, 1992. Commission may also debar him/her permanently from all future examinations of the Commission.
1. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(1) The Principal offender must have the same guilty mind as that of the abettor. (2) Abettor’s liability is dependent on the liability of the principal offender. (3) Abettor and principal offender may be differently liable for different offences. (4) If the abettor is innocent, the principal offender is also not liable.
2. Which one of the following correctly distinguishes theft from extortion ?
(1) In theft movable property must be dishonestly taken whereas in extortion there is delivery of the thing extorted. (2) The extortion there must be dishonest intention whereas in theft the same is not necessary. (3) Theft requires dishonest intention whereas extortion requires fraudulent intention. (4) Theft is an offence against movable property.
3. ’A’ intentionally causes ‘Z’s’ death partly by illegally omitting to give ‘Z’ food and partly by beating ‘Z’, ‘A’ is liable for murder by virtue of which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code?
4. 'A' signs his own name to a bill exchange, intending that it may be beleived that the bill was drawn by another person of the same name. 'A' has committed
(1) Forgery (2) Forgery for the purpose of cheating (3) Cheating by personation (4) Attempt to commit forgery
5. 'A', a Spanish citizen, who was residing in Paris, instigated the commission of an offence which in consequence was commited in India. He
(1) is a liable as the offence was committed in India (2) is liable since the Indian Penal Code also extends to extra-territorial acts (3) Can be held liable because the offence was to be committed in India. (4) Cannot be held liable because instigation was not given on Indian territory.
6. Offence under Chapter IV of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act. 1985 are cognizable
(1) but bailable (2) as well as non cognizable (3) and compoundable (4) and non bailable
7. The establishment of a sessions Court as a special court to try offences under the scheduled Caste and Scheduled tribe (prevention of Atrocities) Act. 1989 requires concurrence of
(1) State government (2) Chief Justice of the concerned High Court (3) District Judge of the concerned area (4) Advocate General of the State
8. Any person aggrieved by the order made by the competent authority under the juvenile justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000 can appeal to
(1) The Sessions Court (2) The High Court (3) Home Minister (4) Chief Judicial Magistrate
9. Which one of the following is not a condition precedent to the release of an offender on probation under section 4, Probation of Offenders Act, 1958?
(1) Circumstances of the case (2) Nature of the offence (3) Character of the offender (4) Amount of damage caused by the offender
10. Which one of the following is not theft of electricity?
(1) Using electricity through a tampered meter (2) Tapping of any connection with underground cables (3) Using electricity for the purpose other than the authorised (4) Using electricity as per the licence 11. Which one of the following is correct?
The information technology Act, 2000 applies also to an offence committed outside of India when the
(1) accused is an Indian national only (2) accused is of any nationality (3) act or conduct constituting the offence involves a computer, computer system or computer network irrespective of its location (4) act or conduct constituting the offence involves a computer, computer system or computer network is located in India
12. In a criminal case documents are exhibited as which one of the following ?
(1) Ex - 1 by one party and Ex A - 1 by the other (2) Ex - P - 1 by one party and Ex - D - 1 by the other (3) Ex - X - 1 by one party and Ex - Y - 1 by the other (4) Ex - M - 1 by one party and Ex - N - 1 by the other
13. Select the right option based on following Assertion - Reason :
Assertion (A) : The principle of equality before law means that there should be equality of treatment under equal circumstances. Reason (R) : All persons are not equal by nature, attainment or circumstances.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is a correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are invidividually true, but (R) is pot the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
14. Select the right option based on following Assertion - Reason :
Assertion (A) : Non-inclusion of Rajasthani language in the Eighth schedule of the constitution does not violate Article 14. Reason (R) : Such policy matters have to be left to the state.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is a correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are invidividually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
15.Select the right option based on following Assertion - Reason :
Assertion (A) : The evidence of an accomplice requires to be accepted with a great degree of caution and scrutiny. Reason (R) : He hopes for pardon or has secured it and so favours the prosecution.
Answer Option :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is a correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
16.Select the right option based on following Assertion - Reason :
Assertion (A) : The offence of dishonour of cheque excludes mens area. Reason (R) : If creates strict liability .
Answer Option :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is a correct explanation of (A) . (2) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
17. Ban on smoking in public place is a violation of which one of following articles of the constitution ?
18. In which one of the following cases it was held that telephone tapping is an invasion of right te privacy ?
(1) Peoples' Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India (2) State of Maharashtra v. Murali Deora (3) Govind v. State of Madhya Pradesh (4) Mr. X v. Hospital Z
19. Which one out of the following is not a fundamental Right ?
(1) Right to strike (2) Right against exploitation (3) Right to equality (4) Right to freedom of religion
20. The Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be enlarged by the
(1) Parliament by law (2) Parliament by resolution (3) President of India (4) President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
21. When can a State law on a subject in the Concurrent List get precedence over a Central law on the same subject ?
(1) In no circumstances (2) If it was made before the Central law (3) If it had got the President's assent before the enactment of the Central law . (4) If consent of the President was taken before its introduction as a bill in the State legislature.
22. Who out of the following nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament,
(1) Prime Minister of India (2) President of India (3) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (4) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
23. A legislation made by the state legislature is
24. Under section 9, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a court during pendency of a suit before it
(1) can entertain and try second suit (2) cannot entertain and proceed to try second suit (3) shall not proceed to try though may entertain second suit (4) neither can entertain nor shall proceed for second suit
25. While executing a decree of other State on reciprocity, a court
(1) can execute the decree in the same manner as if it itself had passed it (2) can decide all questions relating to execution (3) can provide any incidental and consequential relief (4) cannot execute a decree relating to fine, charges, penalty, taxes or arbitration award of that State
26. A court to which decree has been transferred for execution cannot, while executing?
(1) order attachment (2) execute the decree against the legal representatives of the deceased judgement debtor (3) send the decree for execution to another court (4) order execution at the instance of the transferee of the decree
27. The transferee of a decree
(1 ) may enforce the decree against the legal representatives too (' (2) may enforce the decree against the sureties available with the judgement debtor . (3) may enforce the decree against the securities available with the judgement debtor (4) shall hold the equities which the judgement debtor might have enforced against the original decree holder.
28. When a commission has been issued under section 75, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the commission, if not a Judge of Civil Court ?
(1) can call any witness relating to that matter (2) can determine the legality of questions asked during the conduct of proceedings by the commission (3) can extend time and grant exemption from personal appearance (4) cannot impose penalties or fine and initiate contempt of court proceedings
29. Under which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 an ex-parte order and ex-parte decree may be set aside ?
(1) Order 9, Rule 7 and Order 9, Rule 10 (2) Order 9, Rule 4 and Order 9, Rule 5 (3) Order 9, Rule 7 and Order 9, Rule 13 (4) Order 9, Rule 11 and Order 9, Rule 12
30. Interpleader suit cannot be instituted
(1) for any property which relates to two persons but which is being held by a third person for the time being (2) for determining the relationship between a property and the persons claiming it (3) for getting himself. absolved from the liability to keep the property which is not being held by him (4) Where a suit is pending in which the rights of all parties can properly be decided .
31. Once revision is made before the court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, it
(1) acts as a stay on the proceedings (2) acts as a res-judicata on the issues (3) acts as an injuction for immediate relief (4) shall not operate as a stay of suit or other proceeding before the court except where such suit or proceeding is stayed by the court.
32. A caveat under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 may be lodged when any
(1) suit is instituted (2) proceeding is initiated or instituted . (3) suit is about to be instituted. (4) suit or proceeding is instituted or about to be instituted
33. 'A' and 'B', two members of a three member partnership firm, bring a suit for recovery of the debt due from. 'X' to the firm, but their firm is not registered on the date of the institution of the suit. The suit
(1) is maintainable with leave of the court. (2) is maintainable with the concurrence of 'X' (3) is liable to be rejected in view of section 69, Partnership Act (4) will become maintainable after the original defect is cured by subsequent registration
34. Which one of the following contracts is specifically enforceable ?
(1) 'A', an author, contracts with 'B', a publisher, to complete a literary work (2) 'A' contracts to sell and 'B' contracts to buy a residential building (3) 'A' contracts to marry 'B' (4) 'A' contract by a guardian to purchase immovable property on behalf of a minor
(1) proposal (2) mere statement (3) invitation to offer (4) standing offer
37. In which one of the following, consideration is not required ?
(1) Contract of insurance (2) Contract of bailment (3) Contract of guarantee (4) Contract of service
38. 'A' agrees to pay 'B' a sum of money if 'B' gets married to 'C'. 'C' marries 'D' In such a situation, which one of the following statements, is correct ?
(1) The agreement will be effective when 'C' will divorce 'D' (2) The performance of the agreement will be deemed impossible (3) 'B' is bound to get married to 'C' under the agreement (4) 'A' is bound to pay 'B' the agreed sum of money
39. 'A' asked 'B' : "I want to purchase your bike. What will be the cost" ?
'B' replied that the cost will not be less than Rs. 20,0001-. 'A' was interested to purchase it for Rs. 20,000/. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) There was a proposal 'which was accepted (2) There was neither a proposal nor an acceptance (3) There was a proposal but no acceptance (4) There was a counter offer which was accepted
40. An easement which, not being an easement of absolute necessity, comes into existence by presumed grant or operation of law is called
(1) easement by prescription (2) easement by local custom (3) easement by necessity (4) quasi-easement
41. "Neighbour principle was propounded by Lord Atkin in
(1) Donoghue v. Stevenson (2) Polemis case (3) Derry v. Peek (4) Rylands v. Fletcher
42. 'The rule of last opportunity' was laid down in
(1) Thomas v. Quartermaine (2) Davies v. Mann (3) Smith v. Baker (4) Fardon v. Harcourt Rivington
43. Which one of the following is defamatory ?
(1) Publishing a false report in a newspaper for which the editor tendered an apology (2) Publishing a report of parliamentary proceedings showing the misconduct of a member present there (3) Publishing a report of judicial proceeding showing statement made by a witness (4) Publishing a false report in newspaper that a minister was involved in a kidnapping case
44. Joint tort-feasors may be held liable
(1) jointly and severally for the whole damage (2) for damage caused by a person employed by any of them X (3) for damage caused independently of their plan (4) for damage caused by stranger
45. As a result of a collision between two buses a passenger in one of the buses died. The accident occurred due to negligence of the drivers of both the buses'. In a suit by the legal representative of the deceased against owners, of both the buses, which one of the following statments is legally sustainable?
(1) Each owner of the buses is liable. for the whole damage (2) The owners of the buses are not joi,nt tort-feasors (3) Neither of the owners of the buses is liable as the defence of.act of God applies (4) Each owner of the buses was .liable for one-half of the damage.
46. Which one of the following did not emerge from the case of Donoghue v. Stevenson?
(1) A manufacturer of products will be liable if he fails to take reasonable care to ensure that his products are reasonably safe (2) In order to successfully claim for negligence, the plaintiff does not need to have a contract with the defendant (3) Manufacturers have to pay damages to consumers whenever damage is caused by their products (4) The neighbour principle can be used to establish the existence of a duty of care in negligence
47. Who cannot file an application for compensation under section 166 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 ?
(1) The injured person (2) The owner of property (3) The legal representative of the deceased (4) A public interested person
48. If within todays the parties fail to appoint their arbitrators, or the arbitrators fail to appoint the third arbitrator, the arbitrator shall be appointed by the
(1) National Arbitration Council, New Delhi (2) District Judge of the Local Court (3) State Legal Services Authority of the State Concerned (4) Chief Justice or a person / institution designated by him
49. If any party to a proceeding before a revenuecourt does not appear on the date fixed for hearing, the revenue court may
(1) hear the proceeding (2) determine the case in his absence (3) dismiss the case in default (4) refer the dispute to arbitration
50. Specific performance of contract is allowed where
(1) the plaintiff is net entitled to recover compensation (2) the defendant is incompetent to perform the contract (3) compensation is not the adequate relief (4) the defendant has died
51. Under pious obligation a son is obliged to pay a debt contracted by his father
(1) before partition (2) after partition (3) either before or after partition (4) for immoral purpose before partition
52. A Hindu woman aged twenty years adopts a Hindu boy aged twenty years. The adoption is
(1) void (2) voidable at the instance of the boy (3) immoral and unenforceable (4) valid, if taken with leave of court
53. Which one of following statements is not correct ? Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to
54. If a Hindu boy marries a Hindu girl of the same gotra under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the marriage is
(1) void (2) voidable (3) valid (4) unenforceable under law
55. Under Hindu Law a mother, in the absence of her son's father, sells her minor son's immovable property. The minor son, on attaining majority, can challenge this transaction
(1) on the ground of not taking permission from the court (2) as the transaction was not done by his father (3) as no such transaction can be done for minor son (4) but he will be unsuccessful because the transaction is valid
56. Which one of the following is not correct? Under Hindu Law a person can be adopted if he is
(1) Hindu (2) Unmarried (3) Above fifteen years of age (4) Not already adopted
57. Maina Bibi v. Choudhary Vakil Ahmed is related to
58. Which one of the following is not a ground for dissolution of a Muslim marriage under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 ?
(1) Where abouts of the husband is not known for four Years (2) Option of puberty (3) Non-maintenance of the wife by the husband for two years (4) Non-payment of mahr
59. Which one of the following is not an actionable claim ?
(1) Claim for arrears of rent (2) Provident fund payable after retirement (3) A share in partnership (4) A secured debt
60. Which one of the following is an exception to the rule against perpetuity?
(1) Permanent transfer for gift (2) Personal covenants (3) Pre-emption (4) All the above
61. Under the Transfer of property Act, 1882 a charge may be created by
(1) acts of the parties (2) process of law (3) presumption (4) acts of parties and process of law
62. 'A' borrowed a sum of money from 'B'. The last date for filing the suit falls on a Sunday. On Monday, the next day, 'A' gives a written acknowledgment to 'B'. In this case
(1) 'A' should file the suit on Monday (2) Section 18, Limitation Act,1963 gives a fresh period of limitation (3) The suit is barred by limitation under' all circumstances (4) The suit can be field any time subject to.the provisions of section 12, Limitation Act, 1963
63. A permanent Lok Adalat shall take cognizance ,of any
(1) matter relating to an offence not compoundable under any law (2) matter relating to an offence compoundable under any law (3) public utility service related matter where the value of the property in dispute exceeds 10 lakh rupees (4) matter referred to it by the District judge
64. An application for residential order shall be made by a victim of domestic violence before a
(1) Civil Judge (Senior Division) (2) Magistrate of the First Class (3) Family Court (4) Mediation Centre established by the High Court
65. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is a
(1) substantive law (2) procedural law (3) combination of substantive law and procedural law (4) directory law
66. Which one of the following is not correct?
(1) High Courts should not pass interim orders which are likely to hamper investigation (2) A Magistrate can under section 156 (3), code of criminal procedure, 1973 send a complaint of non-cognizable offence to the police (3) The power of the Magistrate of the first class to take cognizance of conizable offence may be impaired by territorial restrictions (4) During the course of investigation by the police, the question of cross-examination does not arise
67. An accused can make an application for plea bargaining if and when he is alleged to have committed the offence.
(1) Of Murder (2) Affecting socio economic condition of the country (3) Theft (4) Affecting women or children below the age of 14 years
68. When at stage of fraiming of charge the sessions court feels that the case is not exclusively triable by it, it may.
(1) Send the case to the chief Judicial magistrate for framing of the charge (2) Frame the charge and transfer the case to the chief Judicial magistrate/ Magistrate of the first Class. (3) Frame the charge and transfer the case to a magistrate of the second class (4) Send the case to Lok Adalat
69. The term 'bail' signifies the conditional release of an accused or arrested person by the
(1) Police during investigation, but not by the magistrate during enquiry. (2) Magistrate during inquiry, but not by the magistrate during trial. (3) Court during trail, but not during revision (4) Police Magistrate or court during investigation, enquiry or trial.
70. A memorandum of arrest of an arrested person is required to be signed and attested by one member of
(1) his family and one of his relatives (2) the locality and one of his relatives (3) other locality and one member of his family (4) his family and one member of the locality, and countersigned by the arrested person.
71. An Executive Magistrate may act even ex-parte under section 144, code of criminal procedure 1973 if immediate prevention or speedy remedy is desirable
(1) to prevent obstruction, annoyance or injury to any lawfully employed person. (2) To avoid danger to human life, health or safety (3) To avoid disturbance to public peace and tranquility, riot or affray (4) on anyone or all of the above grounds .
72. While exercising its inherent powers under section 482, Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 even the High Court cannot
(1) Review its own Judgement. (2) Do all the these mentioned things . (3) Convert itself into court of appeal when the legislature has not conferred a right to appeal to it. (4) Grant police custody from Judicial Custody.
73. Habitual offender is one who
(1) habitually commits offence (2) habitually remains in company of habitual offenders (3) deals with and gives asylum to habitual offenders (4) commits offences mentioned in section 110 and against whom record of commission of more than two offences is available at the time of initiation of proceeding against him.
74. Who out of the following may investigate a, cognizable case even without the order of the Magistrate ?
(1) Superintendent of Police (2) Deputy Inspector General of Police (3) Deputy Superintendent of Police (4) Incharge Police Station
75. 'A' is tried for a riot and is proved to have marched as the head of a mob. The cries of the mob are relevant as
(1) They are related to things said or done by the conspirators in reference to the common design (2) Explanation of the nature of the. transaction (3) Explanatory of motive or preparation (4) Explanatory of occasion, cause or effects of facts
76. The expression 'Police custody' means and includes
(1) Control by the police over the accused directly (2) Control by the police directly as well as through third persons indirectly over the accused (3) Control over the accused indirectly through third persons (4) Some kind of surveillance and restrictions over the accused by Police or through third persons.
77. The evidenciary value of a retracted confession is that it
(1) Still remains an evidence (2) Remains an evidence but a weak evidence (3) Becomes a corroborative evidence (4) Becomes 'other evidence' from 'only evidence'
78. 'A' prosecutes 'B' for adultery with' 'C', who is 'A's' wife. 'B' denies that 'C' is 'A's' wife, But the court convicts' 'B' for adultery, Thereafter, 'C' is prosecuted for bigamy for marrying 'B' during A's' lifetime. 'C' says that she was never 'A's' wife. The judgement against 'B' is.
(1) Irrelevant against 'C' (2) Relevant against 'B' (3) Not relevant against 'B' and 'C' (4) Relevant against 'C'
79. Newspaper report about any matter is which one of the following kinds of evidence?
(1) Does not tell the truth (2) Gives statements against the opposite party (3) Gives statement against the party who called him as a witness (4) Is not desirous to tell the truth, and gives testimony against the party who called him as a witness in his favour.
81. A prostitute, suffering from communicable disease, has sexual intercourse with a man representing that she was free from any disease commits
82. A hangman who hangs a prisoner pursuant to an order of a court is exempt from criminal liability under the Indian Penal Code under
(1) Section 76 (2) Section 77 (3) Section 78 (4) Section 79 83. 'A' knows that 'B' is suffering from a heart disease and also that if a blow' is given to 'B' on his chest it is likely to cause his' death. Knowing this, 'A' gives blow on 'B's' chest causing 'B's' death. 'A' is guilty of
(1) Murder (2) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder (3) Grievous hurt (4) Causing death by rash of negligent act
84. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Every, culpable homicide is murder (2) Death caused by negligent act is murder (3) Every murder is culpable homicide (4) Death caused in course of quarrel is murder
85. 'अपकर्ष' का विलोम शब्द है
(1) उत्कर्ष (2) विकर्ष (3) निष्कर्ष (4) दुर्धर्ष
86. इनमें विदेशज शब्द है
(1) शिक्षा (2) रज्जु (3) सांस (4) जलेबी
87. इनमें एक शब्द 'सरस्वती' का पर्यायवाची शब्द है
(1) गिरा (2) इला (3) सविता (4) श्री
88. इनमें से कौन-सा वाक्य 'पूर्ण भूतकाल' का घोतक है
(1) मैं अपना काम कर रहा था. (2) मैं तो कब का अपना काम कर चुका था. (3) मैंने अपना काम किया. (4) मैं आपके आने पर अपने काम में लग गया.
89. 'भारी मुसीबत में भी कुछ अनिष्ट न होने' के लिए उपयुक्त मुहावरा है
(1) तीन तेरह होना (2) बाल बांका न होना (3) दांत खट्टे करना (4) आसन डोलना
90. 'आच्छादन' शब्द में उपसर्ग है
(1) आः (2) आ (3) आछ (4) अ
91. 'ग्रामागत' शब्द का समास विच्छेद होगा
(1) ग्राम को गया हुआ (2) ग्राम को आया हुआ (3) ग्राम से गया हुआ (4) ग्राम में आया हुआ
92. 'रसोत्पत्ति' शब्द संधि से बना है जिसका निर्माण इन वर्णों के मिलने से हुआ है
(1) उ + उ (2) आ + उ (3) ओ + उ (4) अ + उ
93. इनमें से एक शब्द 'रात' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है
(1) निशा (2) यामिनी (3) उर्मि (4) विभावरी
94. कृपया आवश्यक कार्यवाही करें' टिप्पण के लिए अंग्रेजी में लिखा जाता है
(1) Necessary action is needed (2) Please take action (3) Please take necessary action (4) Do the needful
95. 'Against Public Interest' के लिए उपयुक्त हिन्दी पद होगा
(1) जनता के लिए (2) लोकहित में (3) जनता के साथ (4) लोक हित के प्रतिकूल
96. इनमें एक वाक्य शुद्ध है
(1) सच सुनते ही उसका चेहरा उतर गया. (2) जबरदस्ती आप जो चाहे करें. (3) सोरठा हिन्दी का एक छन्द है. (4) मैंने एक साल तक आपकी प्रतीक्षा देखी.
97. विमति (असहमति) टिप्पणी के लिए अंग्रेजी में उपयुक्त पद है
(1) No objection note (2) Objection note (3) Negative note (4) Note of dissent
98. 'तबेल की बला बन्दर के सिर' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ
(1) दोषी कोई, फंसे कोई (2) दोषी को पहचाने ना (3) दोष स्वीकार (4) दोषी को खोजक
99. साक्ष्य या गवाही के लिए अंग्रेजी का उपयुक्त शब्द है
(1) Estimate (2) Present (3) Evidence (4) Exempt
100. अंग्रेजी के 'SINE DIE' पद के लिए हिन्दी में उपयुक्त पद है
(1) बंद करना (2) स्थगित (3) तिरस्त करना (4) अनिश्चित काल के लिए
101. अंग्रेजी के Autonomous शब्द के लिए हिन्दी का सही पद है
(1) स्वगत (2) स्वायत्त (3) स्वचालित (4) स्ववित्तपाणी
102. 'कानूनी प्रक्रिया' के लिए अंग्रेजी का उपयुक्त पद है
(1) Legal Process (2) Legal Notice (3) Legal Work (4) Legal Right
103. ________ you like to stay the night ?
(1) Dare (2) Would (3) Need (4) Can
104. She ________ be able to drive to school.
(1) dare (2) need (3) can (4) will
105. ________ you pass me the salt ?
(1) Could (2) Need (3) Dare (4) Ought
106. I'm trying to phone her, but I can't _______ _____
(1) get up (2) get through (3) get on (4) get away
107. The weather is ___________ _________
(1) carrying on (2) closing down (3) clearing up (4) come round
108. ________ _______ and see me any time.
(1) Past perfect (2) Past Continuous (3) Past Simple (4) Present Simple
109. They, ran past me and jumped into a car.
(1) Past Perfect (2) Past Continuous (3) Past Simple (4) Present Simple
110. I was standing outside the post office.
(1) Present Continuous (2) Past Continuous (3) Past Simple (4) Past Perfect
111. Note: Select the sentence with coordinating conjunction.
(1) He held my hand lest I should fall. (2) He is slow but he is honest . (3) Rama will go if Hari goes. (4) A book is a book although there is nothing in it.
112. Note: Select the sentence with subordinating conjunction.
(1) Horses neigh and cats mew (2) I was annoyed still I kept quiet (3) He is slow but he is honest (4) He ran away because he was afraid.
113 Note: Mark the passive J!!l.ice which is correct:
The Principal read the report
(1) The principal is reading the report. (2) The report was read by the Principal. (3) The report was had been read by the Principal. (4) The Principal will not read the report.
114. Could we have ________ coffee, please ?
(1) some (2) few (3) no (4) a few
115. ___________ the money goes into a sr.ecial bank account.
(1) Every (2) All (3) Each (4) Some
116. The agent has asked _____ of his customers to give money.
(1) every (2) a little (3) a few (4) each
117. _______ I get you a glass of water ?
(1) Dare (2) Need (3) Can (4) Would
Identify the correct indirect speech
118 "I may not be at home."
(1) He said he might not be at home. (2) He said I may not be at home. (3) He said he could not. be at home. (4) He said he should not be at home.
119 "I do not think 1 will buy another car."
(1) She says she cannot buy another car. (2) She says she will not buy another car. (3) She says she would not think of going to buy a car. (4) She says she does not think she will buy another car.
120"You can pay me cash or give me a cheque".
(1) He told her she could pay in cash or cheque. (2) He told her she could pay him cash or give him a cheque. (3) He told her she would pay him cash or give him a cheque. (4) He told her she should not pay him cash or give him a cheque.